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 Dr Simoncini 7% Iodine Process: CLARIFICATION
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Overthere

USA
31 Posts

Posted - 08/21/2011 :  18:57:23  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
Dr Simoncini:
"The treatment to choose for epithileomas, basaliomas, and melanomas is iodine solution at seven per cent, as it is capable of precipitating the proteins of the body of the fungus and destroying them completely in a short time. If the lesions are fairly small, they must be painted with the solution 10-20-30 times twice a day for five days and then once for another ten days so that they become very dark. When the eschar is formed and it is higher than the epidermic plane, it is necessary to continue to paint under and above it, even if at first this causes a sharp pain.

This very same operation must be repeated for the second eschar that is formed. At this point, the lesion may be considered destroyed, because after the third cycle it is possible to reach the center of the neoplasia, where the colonies try to resist to the last."



Those two paragraphs are most complete set of instructions I’ve seen describing Italian Dr Tullio Simoncini’s topical treatment using 7% Iodine, but still they are very confusing, and oddly, the description that appears on his own website is less complete than what appears above.

I’ve broken Dr Simoncini’s instructions into enumerated steps to help clarify my questions about them. I’d appreciate any clarification, and if you can provide a more complete set of instructions, please do:


SIMONCINI 1: "The treatment to choose for epithileomas, basaliomas, and melanomas is iodine solution at seven per cent, as it is capable of precipitating the proteins of the body of the fungus and destroying them completely in a short time.”

Q1a. Is he advocating use of 7% Iodine Tincture containing an ethanol (alcohol) component? Or a 7% Lugol's without alcohol? I'm guessing the Tincture w/ethanol...

Q1b. Is he saying the high 7% Iodine makes this particular solution able to “precipitate the proteins of the body of the fungus”? Or is it the ethanol component that renders the mixture so effective. Or is it the combination of 7% Iodine plus the ethanol that makes it work?

Q1c. If 7% Tincture Iodine with an ethanol component can “destroy fungus completely in a short time” is it safe to assume that a 5% Iodine solution will also destroy the fungus, but may take longer to do it?

Q1d. If 7% Tincture Iodine with an ethanol component can “destroy fungus completely in a short time” is it safe to assume that a 5% Iodine solution without any alcohol can also destroy the fungus, but may take longer to do it?


SIMONCINI 2: If the lesions are fairly small, they must be painted with the solution 10-20-30 times twice a day for five days and then once for another ten days so that they become very dark.

Q2a. Is he saying paint the lesion 30 times, period? Or is he saying paint it 10 times if that’s all that’s needed? Or 20 times if needed? Or 30 times if needed? (...how would any lay person know how many times are needed…?)

Q2b. When he paints a lesion “10 times”, does that mean he coats it once with Iodine and waits for that coat to absorb before applying each successive coat? Or does “paint it” actually mean apply a single stroke of the Iodine applicator followed by nine more in quick succession?

For the record: Using Lugol’s 5%, my lesions turn "very dark" after each application (2 hours between applications).


SIMONCINI 3: When the eschar is formed and it is higher than the epidermic plane, it is necessary to continue to paint under and above it, even if at first this causes a sharp pain.

Q3. The sensible translation seems to be, “Paint the top of the eschar and also be sure to flow the Iodine heavily around its edges.” Does anybody have a better interpretation?


SIMONCINI 4: This very same operation must be repeated for the second eschar that is formed.

Q4a. My interpretation: You painted twice daily for five days and once daily for ten more days. Eschar #1 has come out. Now you start FROM THE VERY BEGINNING and again paint twice daily for five days and once daily for ten more days. Then eschar #2 comes out. Sound right? That seems to describe the end of the second cycle.


SIMONCINI 5: At this point, the lesion may be considered destroyed, because after the third cycle it is possible to reach the center of the neoplasia, where the colonies try to resist to the last."

Q5b. I interpret “at this point” to mean the end of the second cycle when the second Eschar comes out. Yet in the same sentence he seems to indicate that “this point” refers to “after a third cycle”…


This is extremely confusing, and is a very serious matter to many here. If you have first-hand experience with Dr Simoncini’s technique, or have a complete understanding by any other means, please help clarify these confusing instructions.




Edited by - Overthere on 08/21/2011 21:42:27
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